Q1) Which two functions can LAN switches and bridges provide? (Choose two.) (Source: Introducing Basic Layer 2 Switching and Bridging Functions)
A) packet routing
B) jitter avoidance
C) address learning
D) store and forward decision
E) loop avoidance using the Spanning Tree Protocol
Q2) Ethernet switching or bridging _____ the available bandwidth of a network by creating _____ network segments.
A) increases, shared
B) decreases, shared
C) increases, dedicated
D) decreases, dedicated
Q3) Which is required for STP to detect a topology change?
A) when a BPDU is not received within two seconds
B) when a device does not respond to a handshake message
C) when the max_age timer has expired without receiving a BPDU
D) when a device does not respond quickly enough to a handshake request
Q4) Which command restricts port usage to no more than ten devices?
A) switchport secure 10
B) switchport max-mac-count 10
C) switchport port-security maximum 10
D) switchport port-security 10 max-mac
Q5) Which feature is required for a VLAN to span two switches? (Source: Introducing VLAN Operations)
A) a trunk to connect the switches
B) a router to connect the switches
C) a bridge to connect the switches
D) a VLAN configured between the switches
Q6) What primary benefit does VTP offer? (Source: Introducing VLAN Operations)
A) allows trunking to provide redundancy
B) minimizes redundancy on a switched network
C) allows you to run several VLANs over a single trunk
D) minimizes misconfigurations and configuration inconsistencies
Q7) What is the logical sequence for configuring a Catalyst switch port to be in VLAN 3? (Source: Configuring VLANs)
A) Create the VLAN, then assign the port to the VLAN.
B) Assign the port to the VLAN; all VLANs are created by default.
C) Create the VLAN, assign ports to the default VLAN
D) Assign the port to the VLAN; this also creates the VLAN with a default name.
Q8) When you are deleting a VLAN from a VTP domain, where should the change be performed? (Source: Configuring VLANs)
A) on a switch in VTP server mode
B) on every switch in VTP client mode
C) on a switch in VTP transparent mode
D) on every switch, regardless of VTP mode
Q9) What does the command ip route 22.214.171.124 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.3 specify? (Source: Introducing Routing)
A) Both 126.96.36.199 and 10.1.1.3 use a mask of 255.255.255.0.
B) The router should use network 188.8.131.52 to get to address 10.1.1.3.
C) You want the router to trace a route to network 184.108.40.206 via 10.1.1.3.
D) The router should use address 10.1.1.3 to get to devices on network 220.127.116.11.
Q10) Which of the following protocols is an example of an exterior gateway protocol? (Source: Introducing Routing)
Q11) When a router receives a packet with a destination address that is within an unknown subnetwork of a directly attached network, what is the default behavior if the ip classless command is not enabled? (Source: Introducing Routing)
A) drop the packet
B) forward the packet to the default route
C) forward the packet to the next hop for the directly attached network
D) broadcast the packet through all interfaces except the one on which it was received
Q12) What is the purpose of link-state advertisements? (Source: Introducing Link-State and Balanced Hybrid Routing)
A) to construct a topological database
B) to specify the cost to reach a destination
C) to determine the best path to a destination
D) to verify that a neighbor is still functioning
Q13) Which command displays the amount of time since the router heard from an EIGRP neighbor? (Source: Enabling EIGRP)
A) show ip eigrp traffic
B) show ip eigrp topology
C) show ip eigrp interfaces
D) show ip eigrp neighbors
Q14) Which subnet mask would be appropriate for a class C address used for 9 LANs, each with 12 hosts? (Source: Implementing Variable-Length Subnet Masks)
Q15) What does a Cisco router do with a packet when it matches an ACL permit statement? (Source: Introducing ACLs)
A) discards the packet
B) returns the packet to its originator
C) sends the packet to the output interface
D) holds the packet for further processing
Q16) A system administrator wants to configure an IP standard ACL on a Cisco router to allow only packets from all hosts on the subnet 10.1.1.0/24 from entering an interface on a router. Which ACL configuration accomplishes this goal? (Source: Configuring IP ACLs)
A) access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.0
B) access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.0 host
C) access-list 99 permit 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
D) access-list 100 permit 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
Q17) The following is an ACL that is entered on a Cisco router.
access-list 135 deny tcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255 eq telnet
access-list 135 permit ip any any
If this ACL is used to control incoming packets on ethernet0, which three statements are true? (Choose three.) (Source: Configuring IP ACLs)
A) Address 172.16.1.1 will be denied Telnet access to address 172.16.37.5.
B) Address 172.16.31.1 will be permitted FTP access to address 172.16.45.1.
C) Address 172.16.1.1 will be permitted Telnet access to address 172.16.32.1.
D) Address 172.16.16.1 will be permitted Telnet access to address 172.16.32.1.
E) Address 172.16.16.1 will be permitted Telnet access to address 172.16.50.1.
F) Address 172.16.30.12 will be permitted Telnet access to address 172.16.32.12.
B, C, E
Q18) Which Cisco IOS command would you use to define a pool of global addresses to be allocated as needed? (Source: Scaling the Network with NAT and PAT)
A) ip nat pool
B) ip nat inside pool
C) ip nat outside pool
D) ip nat inside source static
Q19) Which packet type is used in the PPP link establishment phase? (Source: Configuring Serial Point-to-Point Encapsulation)
Q20) With CHAP, how does a remote node respond to a challenge message? (Source: Configuring Serial Point-to-Point Encapsulation)
A) with a hash value
B) with a return challenge
C) with a clear text password
D) with an encrypted password
Q21) What does the ppp authentication chap pap command configure? (Source: Configuring Serial Point-to-Point Encapsulation)
A) CHAP authentication will always be used.
B) Either CHAP or PAP will be used, selected at random for security.
C) CHAP authentication will be used unless the remote router requests PAP.
D) If authentication fails using CHAP, then PAP authentication is attempted.
Q22) Which VC status state on a Cisco router indicates that the local connection to the Frame Relay switch is working but the remote router connection to the Frame Relay switch is not working? (Source: Introducing Frame Relay)
A) LMI state
B) active state
C) deleted state
D) inactive state
Q23) Which address must be mapped on a Frame Relay VC to the local DLCI? (Source: Introducing Frame Relay)
A) port address
B) source port address
C) network layer address
D) data-link layer address
Q24) In which situation will you configure a static Frame Relay map? (Source: Configuring Frame Relay)
A) when compression is not set on the interface
B) when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP
C) when the remote router does not support Frame Relay
D) when the network layer address of the destination router interface is not set
Q25) Which Cisco IOS command correctly configures a static map of the remote IP address (10.16.0.2) to the local data-link connection identifier (DLCI) (110)? (Source: Configuring Frame Relay)
A) frame-relay map dlci 110 ip 10.16.0.2
B) frame-relay inverse-arp ip 10.16.0.2 110
C) frame-relay arp ip 10.16.0.2 110 broadcast
D) frame-relay map ip 10.16.0.2 110 broadcast
Q26) The following line is taken from the output of the debug frame-relay lmi command:
1w2d: PVC IE 0x7, length 0x6, dlci 10, status 0x2, bw 0
What does the dlci 10, status 0x2 indicate? (Source: Configuring Frame Relay)
A) DLCI 10 is inactive, and the status is deleted.
B) DLCI 10 is active, and the status is “added” and “active.”
C) DLCI 10 is active, and the status is “added” and “inactive.”
D) DLCI 10 is inactive, and the status is “added” and “inactive.”
Q27) Given the following configuration statements, what kind of traffic will trigger a DDR call? (Source: Configuring Dial-on-Demand Routing)
? dialer-list 1 protocol ip list 101
? access-list 101 deny tcp any any eq telnet
? access-list 101 deny tcp any any eq ftp
? access-list 101 permit ip any any
A) all IP traffic
B) FTP and Telnet traffic
C) all IP traffic except TCP
D) all IP traffic except Telnet and FTP
Q28) Which Cisco IOS command allows all IP traffic to initiate a DDR call without using an access list? (Source: Configuring Dial-on-Demand Routing)
A) dialer-list 1 protocol ip deny
B) dialer-list 1 protocol ip permit
C) dialer-list 1 protocol ip list 101
D) dialer-group 1 protocol ip permit
Q29) Which Cisco IOS command specifies a bandwidth limit on a link that causes a second DDR link to be established? (Source: Configuring Dial-on-Demand Routing)
A) dialer map
C) dialer idle-timeout
D) dialer load-threshold
Q30) What information does the debug isdn q931 command display? (Source: Configuring Dial-on-Demand Routing)
A) PPP authentication information
B) negotiation of link compression
C) call setup and teardown messages
D) data being transmitted over a DDR link